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Adult Health 1 Exam 2 Concepts - Modules 3 and 4 Flashcards Quizlet
Biology I for Science Majors (BIOL 1406 )
Lone Star College System
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Adult Health 1 Exam 2 Concepts - Modules 3 and
4
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The client who is exposed to invaders recovers rapidly after the invasion without damage to healthy body cells. How has the immune response protected the client?
A. Intact skin and mucous membranes B. Self-tolerance C. Inflammatory response against invading foreign proteins D. Antibody-antigen interaction
(Chapter 19: Inflammation and the Immune Response)
B.
A. The body has some defenses to prevent organisms from gaining access to the internal environment, such as intact skin and mucous membranes. However, they are not perfect. Invasion of the body's internal environment by organisms often occurs. B. The ability to recognize self versus non-self is necessary to prevent healthy body cells from being destroyed along with the invaders. This meets the client's protection needs. C. Inflammation provides immediate protection against the effects of tissue injury and invading foreign proteins. The inflammatory response is immediate but short-term against injury or invading organisms; it does not provide true immunity. D. Seven steps are needed to produce a specific antibody directed against a specific antigen whenever the person is exposed to that antigen.
Which statement accurately explains otitis media?
A. The inflammatory response is triggered by the invasion of foreign proteins.
B. Phagocytosis by macrophages and neutrophils destroys and eliminates foreign invaders.
C. It is caused by a left shift or increase in immature neutrophils.
D. Many immune system cells released into the blood have specific effects.
(Chapter 19: Inflammation and the Immune Response)
A.
A. Inflammation is the process that occurs in response to invasion by organisms. In otitis media, it is a bacterium. B. These cell types are involved in inflammation; otitis media is an inflammation caused by infection. C. The less mature neutrophil forms should not be in the blood. The change in form is caused by infection, such as sepsis. D. Immune system cells take action when encountering a non-self or foreign protein to neutralize, destroy, or eliminate this foreign invader, but this does not cause inflammation.
The nurse is preparing the client for discharge on postoperative day 1after a modified radical mastectomy. Which instruction is most important for the nurse to include in this client's discharge plan?
A. "Please report any increased redness, swelling, warmth, pain, or lack of movement to your health care provider." B. "Do not allow anyone to take your blood pressure or draw blood on the side where you had your breast removed."
C. "A referral has been made to the American Cancer Society's Reach to Recovery program, and a volunteer will call you next week."
D. "Avoid the prone and hunched-back positions, and ask your health care provider for any other needed activity restrictions."
A.
A. Instruction on increased signs and symptoms of inflammation could reveal signs of potential infection. B. Although this information should be included, it is not the most important instruction among the options listed. C. Referrals are important in helping with coping but are not the most important consideration when the client is being sent home on postoperative day 1. D. Positioning is important but is not the priority here.
Adult Health 1 Exam 2 Concepts - Modules 3 and 4
(Chapter 19: Inflammation and the Immune Response)
lobes, with productive cough of copious amounts of thick yellow sputum, white blood cell count (WBC) 20, segs 7, bands 10, oxygen saturation of 95% on O2 at 2 L, and temperature of 100° F (38° C) D. Older adult client with recent history of right hip replacement, with productive cough, white blood cell count (WBC) 3, segs 6, bands 5, lungs with crackles right mid-lobe posterior chest wall, oxygen saturation of 89% with O2 at 2 L, and afebrile
(Chapter 19: Inflammation and the Immune Response)
Which statement best exemplifies the client's protection from cancer provided by cell- mediated immunity (CMI) after exposure to asbestos?
A. Cytotoxic and cytolytic T-cells destroy cells that contain the major histocompatibility complex of a processed antigen. B. Helper and inducer T- cells recognize self- cells versus non-self- cells and secrete lymphokines that can enhance the activity of white blood cells.
C. Suppressor T-cells prevent hypersensitivity when a client is exposed to non-self- cells or to proteins. D. Balance elicits protection when helper or inducer T-cells outnumber suppressor T-cells by a ratio of 2:1.
(Chapter 19:
D.
A. The activity of cytotoxic and cytolytic T-cells is most effective against self-cells infected by parasites. B. Overreactions can cause tissue damage if an imbalance exists between helper and inducer T- cells. C. When suppressor T-cells are increased, immune function is suppressed and the risk for infection increases. D. Optimal function of CMI requires a balance between helper and inducer T-cells and suppressor T-cells. This balance occurs when helper and inducer T-cells outnumber suppressor T-cells by a ratio of 2:1.
The nurse is teaching the client about cyclosporine (Sandimmune) therapy after a liver transplantation. Which client statement indicates the need for further teaching?
A. "I will be on this medicine for the rest of my life." B. "I must undergo regular kidney function tests." C. "I must regularly monitor my blood sugar."
D. "My gums may become swollen because of this drug."
(Chapter 19: Inflammation and the Immune Response)
B.
A. The client must take cyclosporine for the rest of his or her life. B. Kidney dysfunction is a side effect of cyclosporine, so regular monitoring is required. C. Blood sugar is not affected by taking cyclosporine. D. Swollen gums are a side effect of taking cyclosporine.
Which of these home health nurses should the nurse manager assign to care for an 18-year-old client with a kidney transplant who has many questions about the prescribed cyclosporine (Sandimmune)?
A. An RN who has worked for the home health agency for 5 years in maternal-child health
B. An RN who has extensive critical care nursing experience and has worked in home health for a year
C. An RN who transferred to the home health agency after working for 10 years in an outpatient dialysis unit D. An RN who worked for 5 years in an organ transplant unit and has recently been hired by the home health agency
D.
A. This nurse would not have knowledge and information on the care provided and medications used in post-transplantation clients. B. This nurse would not have knowledge and information on the care provided and medications used in post-transplantation clients. C. This nurse would not have knowledge and information on the care provided and medications used in post-transplantation clients. D. This nurse has experience and understanding of the needs of a post-transplantation client and knowledge of the drug.
Which member of the health care team demonstrates reducing the risk for infection for the client with acquired immune deficiency syndrome (AIDS)? A. The dietary worker hands the disposable meal trays to the LPN assigned to the client. B. The social worker encourages the client to verbalize about stressors at home. C. Housekeeping thoroughly cleans and disinfects the hallways near the client's room. D. The health care provider orders vital signs including temperature every 8 hours.
(Chapter 21: Care of Patients with HIV Disease and Other Immune Deficiencies)
A.
A. This limits the number of health care personnel entering the room. B. Verbalizing stressors does not reduce the risk for infection. C. Cleaning of bathrooms, not hallways, at least once daily by housekeeping reduces infection. D. Vital signs, including temperature, should be taken every 4 hours to detect potential infection but does not reduce the risk for infection.
The nurse is instructing an unlicensed health care worker on care of the client with human immune deficiency virus (HIV) who also has active genital herpes. Which statement by the health care worker indicates effective teaching of Standard Precautions? A. "I need to know my HIV status, so I must get tested before caring for any clients." B. "Putting on a gown and gloves will cover up the itchy sores on my elbows." C. "Washing my hands and putting on a gown and gloves is what I must do before starting care." D. "I will wash my hands before going into the room, and then will put on gown and gloves only for direct contact with the client's genitals."
(Chapter 21: Care of Patients with HIV Disease and Other Immune Deficiencies)
C.
A. Knowing HIV status is important for preventing transmission of HIV but is not a Standard Precaution. B. Health care workers with weeping dermatitis should not provide direct client care regardless of the use of gown and gloves. C. Standard Precautions include whatever personal protective equipment (PPE) is necessary for the prevention of transmission of HIV and genital herpes. D. Unlicensed health care workers cannot make the determination of what is required for PPE or Standard Precautions.
Adult Health 1 Exam 2 Concepts - Modules 3 and 4
When preparing the newly diagnosed client with HIV and the significant other for discharge, which explanation by the nurse accurately describes proper condom use? A. "Condoms should be used when lesions are present on the penis." B. "Always position the condom with a space at the tip of an erect penis." C. "Make sure it fits loosely to allow for penile erection." D. "Use adequate lubrication such as petroleum jelly."
(Chapter 21: Care of Patients with HIV Disease and Other Immune Deficiencies)
B.
A. Condoms must be used at all times with sexual activity, with or without the presence of lesions. B. This allows for collection of semen at the tip of the condom. C. Condoms should be applied on an erect penis and should fit snugly, leaving space without air at the tip. D. Lubricants should be water-based only.
The nurse presents a seminar on HIV testing to a group of seniors and their caregivers in an assisted-living facility. Which responses fit the recommendations of the Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC) regarding HIV testing? Select all that apply. A. "I am 78 years old, and I was treated and cured of syphilis many years ago." B. "In 1986, I received a transfusion of platelets." C. "Seven years ago, I was released from a penitentiary." D. "I used to smoke marijuana 30 years ago, but I have not done any drugs since that time." E. "At 68, I am going to get married for the fourth time."
(Chapter 21: Care of Patients with HIV Disease and Other Immune Deficiencies)
A. C. E.
HIV testing is recommended for clients who received a blood transfusion between 1978 and 1985.
Adult Health 1 Exam 2 Concepts - Modules 3 and 4 Flashcards Quizlet
Course: Biology I for Science Majors (BIOL 1406 )
University: Lone Star College System
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